Latest ISC CISSP PDF and Dumps (2022) Free Exam Questions Answers

Pass Your ISC Certification CISSP Exam on Feb 10, 2022 with 990 Questions

Understanding specialized and utilitarian capacities of CISSP test: Certified Information Systems Security Professional

The accompanying will be examined in ISC CISSP dumps:

• Understand Fundamental Concepts of Security Models
• Design and Implement Facility Security
• Assess and Mitigate Vulnerabilities in Embedded Devices and Cyber-Physical Systems
• Assess and Mitigate the Vulnerabilities of Security Architectures, Designs, and Solution Elements
• Understand the Security Capabilities of Information Systems
• Implement and Manage an Engineering Life Cycle Using Security Design Principles
• Assess and Mitigate Vulnerabilities in Mobile Systems
• Assess and Mitigate Vulnerabilities in Web-based Systems

ISC CISSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CISSP Exam Practice Test Questions

Passing the (ISC)2 CISSP certification exam, gaining 5 years of security experience, and getting endorsed by another certified professional are the main requirements for earning the Certified Information Systems Security Practitioner certificate. It is the most-esteemed cybersecurity certification on a global scale, and a lot of IT specialists opt for this option when they want to succeed.

The CISSP exam is developed for the IT professionals who have strong experience in the working field of cybersecurity. The typical audience for this test is the specialists with 5 years of paid, full-time employment, particularly in the relevant positions that focus on two or more of the 8 cybersecurity domains that the CISSP Body of Knowledge covers.

How to Prepare for CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional

Preparation Guide for CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional

Introduction to CISSP exam: Certified Information Systems Security Professional

The CISSP test is important for the ISC Institute Certification. This test estimates your capacity in researching Cyber Crimes and working ordinarily against noxious programmers following Digital Evidence to arraign Cyber Criminals. Ensured Information Systems Security Professional - CISSP test is an expert confirmation that actions your abilities to achieve progressed tasks to battle malignant programmers. This confirmation test is a first class approach to exhibit your insight, advance your vocation and become an individual from a local area of network safety world. It shows you have everything necessary to configuration, specialist, execute and run a data security program. The competitors ought to likewise have a solid arrangement over hacking assaults and they ought to appropriately separating proof to report the wrongdoing and direct reviews to forestall future assaults getting little and huge undertaking.

The certificate is ideal for those working in jobs, for example, Security Consultant, Security Analyst, Security Manager, IT Director/Manager, Network Architect, Director of Security, Security Auditor, Security Architect, Security Systems Engineer, Chief Information Security Officer. The crowd ordinarily incorporates spies, strategy man, execution advisors, security group leads and venture directors, police and other law implementation staff, Defense and Military work force, Systems executives, Banking, Insurance and different experts, Government offices and IT administrators. The Web Simulator with a ISC CISSP practice tests and ISC CISSP practice exams will help you in audit, invigorate and extend your data security information (counting data security ideas and industry best practices). The CISSP Exam is an extremely confounded test and its span depends on 3 Hours with 100-150 Questions to be replied.

 

NEW QUESTION 537
A server farm consisting of multiple similar servers seen as a single IP address from users interacting with the group of servers is an example of which of the following?

• A. Redundant servers
• B. Server clustering
• C. Server fault tolerance
• D. Multiple servers

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A server cluster is a group of servers that are viewed logically as one server to users and can be managed as a single logical system through a single IP address.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Redundant servers are not grouped together and can be managed through a single IP address.
C: In general, a group of multiple servers can be grouped together and managed through a single IP address.
D: Server fault tolerance is not related to managing a group of servers through a single IP address.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 1272

 

NEW QUESTION 538
In the OSI/ISO model, at what level are TCP and UDP provided?

• A. Application
• B. Presentation
• C. Network
• D. Transport

Answer: D

Explanation:
Transport Layer. .... TCP and UDP operate on this layer.' Pg 82. Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.

 

NEW QUESTION 539
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 256 KBS.(True/False)

• A. True
• B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
The top speed of ISDN BRI is 128 KBS. Its two primary channels are each capable of carrying 64 KBS so the combined top speed is 128 KBS.

 

NEW QUESTION 540
Why is fiber the most secure means of transmission?

• A. Built-in fault tolerance
• B. Multiplexing prevents traffic analysis
• C. High speed multiplexing
• D. Interception of traffic is more difficult because it is optically based
• E. Higher data rates make it more secure

Answer: D

Explanation:
Fiber is more secure because it is hard to tap into and gives off no EMI such as copper cabling.

 

NEW QUESTION 541
Which of the following access control models is based on sensitivity labels?

• A. Role-based access control
• B. Rule-based access control
• C. Discretionary access control
• D. Mandatory access control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Access decisions are made based on the clearance of the subject and the sensitivity
label of the object.
Example: Eve has a "Secret" security clearance and is able to access the "Mugwump Missile
Design Profile" because its sensitivity label is "Secret." She is denied access to the "Presidential
Toilet Tissue Formula" because its sensitivity label is "Top Secret."
The other answers are not correct because:
Discretionary Access Control is incorrect because in DAC access to data is determined by the
data owner. For example, Joe owns the "Secret Chili Recipe" and grants read access to Charles.
Role Based Access Control is incorrect because in RBAC access decsions are made based on
the role held by the user. For example, Jane has the role "Auditor" and that role includes read
permission on the "System Audit Log."
Rule Based Access Control is incorrect because it is a form of MAC. A good example would be a
Firewall where rules are defined and apply to anyone connecting through the firewall.
References:
All in One third edition, page 164
Official ISC2 Guide page 187

 

NEW QUESTION 542
Which of the following is a Microsoft technology for communication among software components distributed across networked computers?

• A. OLE
• B. DCOM
• C. DDE
• D. ODBC

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Component Object Model (COM) is a model that allows for interprocess communication within one application or between applications on the same computer system. The model was created by Microsoft and outlines standardized APIs, component naming schemes, and communication standards. So if I am a developer and I want my application to be able to interact with the Windows operating system and the different applications developed for this platform, I will follow the COM outlined standards.
Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM) supports the same model for component interaction, and also supports distributed interprocess communication (IPC). COM enables applications to use components on the same systems, while DCOM enables applications to access objects that reside in different parts of a network. So this is how the client/server-based activities are carried out by COM-based operating systems and/or applications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Dynamic Data Exchange (DDE) allows information to be shared or communicated between programs on one computer, not across networked computers.
B: Object linking and embedding (OLE) provides a way for objects to be shared on a local personal computer and to use COM as their foundation. OLE enables objects-such as graphics, clipart, and spreadsheets-to be embedded into documents. This is not what is described in the question.
C: Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) is an API that allows an application to communicate with a database, either locally or remotely. This is not what is described in the question.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 1146, 1176

 

NEW QUESTION 543
The addressing mode in which an instruction accesses a memory location
whose contents are the address of the desired data is called:

• A. Indirect addressing.
• B. Indexed addressing.
• C. Implied addressing.
• D. Direct addressing.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 544
In the context of legal proceedings and trial practice, discovery refers to:

• A. The process of obtaining information on potential and existing employees using background checks
• B. The process in which the prosecution presents information it has uncovered to the defense, including potential witnesses, reports
  resulting from the investigation, evidence, and so on
• C. The process undertaken by the investigators to acquire evidence needed for prosecution of a case
• D. A step in the computer forensic process

Answer: B

Explanation:
The key words are legal proceedings and trial practice. Information and property obtained in the investigation by law enforcement officials must be turned over to the defense. For some information that is proprietary to an organization, restrictions can be placed on who has access to the data. The other answers are forms of the investigative process. During an investigation, answers "The process undertaken by the investigators to acquire evidence needed for prosecution of a case" and "A step in the computer forensic process" are appropriate definitions of discovery.

 

NEW QUESTION 545
Which of the following security-focused protocols operates at a layer different from the others?

• A. Simple Key Management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
• B. Secure shell (SSH-2)
• C. Secure socket layer (SSL)
• D. Secure HTTP

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 546
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.
What is the best approach for the CISO?
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.
What is the best approach for the CISO?

• A. Notate the information and move on
• B. Perform a vulnerability assessment
• C. Perform a quantitative threat assessment
• D. Document the system as high risk

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 547
A packet filtering firewall looks at the data packet to get information about the source and destination addresses of an incoming packet, the protocol (TCP, UDP, or ICMP), and the source and destination port for the:

• A. delayed service.
• B. desired service.
• C. distributed service.
• D. dedicated service.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is the usual term to describe the destination for a TCP/UDP packet.
"Dedicated service" is incorrect. This is an "almost right sounding" term meant to confuse the unwary.
"Delayed service" is incorrect. This is a nonsense term to confuse you.
"Distributed service" is incorrect. While network services can certainly be distributed, the usual term is "desired service" or "destination service."
References:
CBK, p. 464
AIO3, pp. 482 - 484

 

NEW QUESTION 548
Which one of the following addresses the protection of computers and components from electromagnetic emissions?

• A. TEMPEST
• B. Hardening
• C. IEEE 802.2
• D. ISO 9000

Answer: A

Explanation:
Receipt and Display of information, which is resident on computers or terminals, thorugh the interception of Radio Frequency (RF) signals generated by those computers or terminals. The US government established a program called Tempest that addressed this problem by requiring shielding and other emanation-reducing mechanisms to be employed on
computers processing sensitive and classified government information. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP
PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 416

 

NEW QUESTION 549
Which of the following specifically addresses cyber attacks against an organization's IT systems?

• A. Continuity of support plan
• B. Incident response plan
• C. Continuity of operations plan
• D. Business continuity plan

Answer: B

Explanation:
The incident response plan focuses on information security responses to incidents affecting systems and/or networks. It establishes procedures to address cyber attacks against an organization's IT systems. These procedures are designed to enable security personnel to identify, mitigate, and recover from malicious computer incidents, such as unauthorized access to a system or data, denial of service, or unauthorized changes to system hardware or software. The continuity of support plan is the same as an IT contingency plan. It addresses IT system disruptions and establishes procedures for recovering a major application or general support system. It is not business process focused. The business continuity plan addresses business processes and provides procedures for sustaining essential business operations while recovering from a significant disruption. The continuity of operations plan addresses the subset of an organization's missions that are deemed most critical and procedures to sustain these functions at an alternate site for up to 30 days. Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page 8).

 

NEW QUESTION 550
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to use external penetration service firms rather than corporate resources?

• A. They are more cost-effective
• B. They use highly talented ex-hackers
• C. They ensure a more complete reporting
• D. They offer a lack of corporate bias

Answer: B

Explanation:
Two points are important to consider when it comes to ethical hacking: integrity and independence.
By not using an ethical hacking firm that hires or subcontracts to ex-hackers of others who have criminal records, an entire subset of risks can be avoided by an organization. Also, it is not cost-effective for a single firm to fund the effort of the ongoing research and development, systems development, and maintenance that is needed to operate state-of-the-art proprietary and open source testing tools and techniques.
External penetration firms are more effective than internal penetration testers because they are not influenced by any previous system security decisions, knowledge of the current system environment, or future system security plans. Moreover, an employee performing penetration testing might be reluctant to fully report security gaps.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Appendix F: The Case for Ethical Hacking (page 517).

 

NEW QUESTION 551
Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack?

• A. The cryptanalyst can generate ciphertext from arbitrary text.
• B. The cryptanalyst is presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined.
• C. The cryptanalyst examines the communication being sent back and forth.
• D. The cryptanalyst can choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Software Development Security

 

NEW QUESTION 552
For a service provider, which of the following MOST effectively addresses confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing?

• A. Data segregation
• B. Non-repudiation controls
• C. Hash functions
• D. File system permissions

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 553
An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session timeout requirement is

• A. industry laws and regulations.
• B. industry best practices.
• C. management feedback.
• D. organization policy.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 554
At which OSI layer does SSL reside in?

• A. Application
• B. Session
• C. Network
• D. Transport

Answer: D

Explanation:
The following answers are incorrect:
Application - SSL resides in the transport layer.
Session - While SSL does straddle both the session and transport layers, for exam purposes, choose transport.
Network - SSL resides in the transport layer.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
All In One CISSP Exam guide by Shon Harris, Chapter 7, pg 493

 

NEW QUESTION 555
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 2, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?

• A. UDP.
• B. TCP.
• C. IGMP.
• D. ICMP.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP header protocol field value for IGMP is 2.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The IP header protocol field value for TCP is 6, not 2.
B: The IP header protocol field value for ICMP is 1, not 2.
C: IP header protocol field value for UDP is 17, not 2.
References:
Stewart, James M., Ed Tittel, and Mike Chapple, CISSP: Certified Information Systems Security Professional Study Guide, 5th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2011, p. 123

 

NEW QUESTION 556
Which RAID Level often implements a one-for-one disk to disk ratio?

• A. RAID Level 5
• B. RAID Level 2
• C. RAID Level 1
• D. RAID Level 0

Answer: C

Explanation:
RAID Level 1 often implemented by a one-for-one disk to disk ratio.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 65.
See Also: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-
Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 7: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 480).
See also: "This level duplicates all disk writes from one disk to another to create two identical drives. This technique is also known as data mirroring. Redundancy is provided at this level" Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK. p. 657
= ============================
RAID Level 0 - "Writes files in stripes across multiple disks without the use of parity informaiton. This technique allows for fast reading and writing to disk. However, without parity information, it is not possible to recover from a hard drive failure." Source: Official
ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK. p. 657
= ============================
RAID Level 2 - "Data is spread across multiple disks at the bit level using this technique.
Redundancy information is computed using a Hammering error correction code, which is the same technique used within hard drives and error-correcting memory modules."
Source: Official ISC2 guide to the CISSP CBK p.657-658
= ============================
RAID Level 5 - "This level requires three or more drives to implement. Data and parity information is striped together across all drives. This level is the most popular and can tolerate the loss of any one drive." Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK p. 658

 

NEW QUESTION 557
How does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in transport mode affect in the Internet Protocol (IP)?

• A. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the complete IP packet
• B. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP header, but not the IP payload
• C. Encrypts and optionally authenticates the IP payload, but not the IP header
• D. Authenticates the IP payload and selected portions of the IP header

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 558
Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management?

• A. Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication
• B. Frequently review performed activities and request justification
• C. Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager
• D. Regularly perform account re-validation and approval

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 559
What principle requires that a user be given no more privilege then necessary to perform a job?

• A. Principle of effective privilege.
• B. Principle of aggregate privilege.
• C. Principle of least privilege.
• D. Principle of most privilege.

Answer: C

Explanation:
As described at http://hissa.nist.gov/rbac/paper/node5.html, the principle of least privilege has been described as important for meeting integrity objectives. The principle of least privilege requires that a user be given no more privilege than necessary to perform a job.

 

NEW QUESTION 560
......

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